Answer 20

20.   Answer C is the correct answer.  Estradiol deficiency is responsible for the vasomotor symptoms in menopause.  FSH, testosterone, and progesterone are not responsible for this.

Question 20

20.   Deficiency of which hormone is responsible for the hot flashes in menopause?


 A.  FSH
 B.  Testosterone
 C.  Estradiol
 D. Progesterone

Answer 19

19.  Answer B.  Elevated FSH is consistent with ovarian failure.  Low GnRH implies some hypothalamic insufficiency.  Elevated estradiol may be found in hormone replacement.  Decrease testosterone has no correlation with ovarian failure.  

Question 19

19.  Which of the following hormone abnormalities is consistent with ovarian failure?

1. Low GnRH
2. Elevated FSH
3. Decreased Testosterone 
4. Elevated Estradiol

Answer 18

18.  Choice B is the correct answer.  The pathogenesis behind dysmenorrhea is excessive prostaglandins.  NSAIDS are first line because they inhibit prostaglandins.  Norco would not do anything for the underlying problem.  Metformin would be appropriated for someone with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).  Glyburide would not be appropriate and would likely cause hypoglycemia in a non diabetic patient.  

Question 18

18.  Your patient is a 20 year old obese female that presents complaining of dysmenorrhea.  Which of the following is the best first line treatment?

1. Metformin
2. Naprosyn
3. Norco
4. Glyburide

 

Answer 17

17.  Choice D is the correct answer.  Menopause is characterized by no menses for 12 months.  On a typical lab evaluation would show elevated levels of LH and FSH and low estradiol.